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Posted By Don Boudreaux On April 22, 2011 @ 12:12 pm In Taxes | Comments Disabled
Are the rich not paying their ‘fair share’ (whatever the hell that term means in such a context) of taxes? And do cuts in top marginal tax rates mean that a larger share of the burden of taxation is shifted onto the non-rich?
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 Take a look at this telling graph from Mark Perry: http://mjperry.blogspot.com/2011/04/tax-rates-and-share-of-tax-revenues.html
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